Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 07:10
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What is the reason for the high rate of unmarried individuals in America, particularly among males?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
How are Hinduism and Sikhism related, considering they both originated in Punjab, India?
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Is the Chinese economy currently collapsing? If not, what could potentially cause it to collapse?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.